Reference: Wooldridge, Chapter 8
Recall Assumption MLR.5: Homoskedasticity. The error $u$ has the same variance given any value of the explanatory variables: $$ Var(u|x_1,x_2,...,x_k)=\sigma^2 $$
If this is not the case, there is heteroskedasticity.
What does this mean?
Consider the following model: $$wage=\beta_0+\delta_0 female +u$$
Homoskedasticity means that the variance of the error term $u$ (and in this case the variance of wages) is the same for females and males.
Is this realistic? Discuss.
Let's look at the summary statistics,
$$ \widehat{Var(\beta_j)} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n \hat{r}_{ij}^2 \hat{u}_{ij}^2 }{SSR_j^2} $$ where,
Is this heteroskedasticity? Or homoskedasticy?